Nursing Elites

1. A nurse starts classes for clients with type 2 diabetes. Which information would the nurse use as an outcome evaluation for the class?

• A. Parking convenience for attendees continues to be a major concern.
• B. Fasting blood glucose average readings were 20% lower by the end of classes.
• C. Discussion of food exchanges and calories was a well-attended class.
• D. Demonstrating the use of a blood glucose meter was an effective teaching strategy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A reduction in fasting blood glucose levels indicates the effectiveness of the diabetes management education provided. Monitoring blood glucose levels is a crucial aspect of diabetes management, and a decrease in average readings signifies improvement in managing blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are not direct outcome evaluations related to the effectiveness of the education provided in managing diabetes. Parking convenience, attendance, and teaching strategies are not direct indicators of the impact on the clients' health outcomes.

2. The school nurse who is reviewing immunization records of students who will start kindergarten within the next month notes that most of the students have only received one dose of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Note in the student records that the second dose of the MMR vaccine should be administered prior to entering first grade
• B. Send notices home with the children on the first day of class advising that MMR vaccine series must be completed
• C. Contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of MMR is due at the start of the school year
• D. Speak at the next parent-teacher association meeting to teach parents the benefits of immunizing their children

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the school nurse is to contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of the MMR vaccine is due at the start of the school year. This approach directly addresses the issue of incomplete vaccination coverage and ensures that children receive the complete vaccination on time. Choice A is incorrect as it only notes the need for the second dose without actively engaging parents. Choice B is not as effective as directly contacting parents and may lead to delays in completing the vaccination series. Choice D, while promoting immunization, does not directly address the current situation of incomplete MMR vaccination among the kindergarten students.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client with anemia. Which action is most important to prevent a transfusion reaction?

• A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
• B. Use a blood filter when administering the transfusion.
• C. Verify the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional.
• D. Administer antihistamines before starting the transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional is the most crucial action to prevent a transfusion reaction. Ensuring compatibility between the donor blood and the recipient is essential in preventing adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Checking vital signs is important for monitoring the client during the transfusion process but does not directly prevent a transfusion reaction. Using a blood filter can help remove clots and debris but does not address the risk of a reaction due to blood type incompatibility. Administering antihistamines before the transfusion is not a standard practice to prevent transfusion reactions related to blood type incompatibility.

4. A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wear a gown and gloves.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Perform hand hygiene.
• D. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client to a negative air-flow room (Choice D). Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, including isolating the client in a negative pressure air-flow room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. Choice A (Wear a gown and gloves) is important for standard precautions but does not address the specific airborne precautions needed for tuberculosis. Choice B (Have the client wear a mask) may help reduce the spread of respiratory droplets but does not provide adequate protection for healthcare workers or other patients. Choice C (Perform hand hygiene) is essential for infection control but is not the most critical action when dealing with an airborne infection like tuberculosis.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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