which of the following is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an iv administration of furosemide
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1. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.

2. In a patient with type 1 diabetes, which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a patient with type 1 diabetes. In DKA, the body responds to hyperglycemia and dehydration by increasing heart rate. Polyuria (increased urination) is a symptom of diabetes but not specific to DKA. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and dry skin are not typical signs of DKA; instead, tachycardia and other signs of volume depletion are more common.

3. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.

4. A client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months is being assessed by a nurse. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answers are all of the above (D). Asking about fluid intake (choice A) is important as it can affect the risk of cystitis. Estrogen levels (choice B) can also impact the likelihood of recurrent cystitis. Family history (choice C) is relevant as certain genetic factors can predispose individuals to cystitis. Cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to reduce the risk of bacterial cystitis by increasing the acidic pH. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are all pertinent questions to ask during the assessment of a client with recurrent bacterial cystitis.

5. A client with elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) triggers the release of this hormone due to which disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases tubular permeability to water, causing more water absorption into the capillaries. ADH is released in response to a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, such as in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema do not typically lead to the release of ADH. Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition, renal failure affects kidney function, and edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues, none of which directly stimulate the release of ADH.

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