Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
• C. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• D. ‘I should limit my caffeine intake to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms’ indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.

2. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?

• A. Decreased abdominal girth
• B. Increased blood pressure
• C. Clear breath sounds
• D. Decreased serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased abdominal girth. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, a LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. A decrease in abdominal girth indicates that the shunt is effectively draining the ascitic fluid, relieving the client's abdominal distension. Choice B, increased blood pressure, is incorrect as a LeVeen shunt is not expected to impact blood pressure. Choice C, clear breath sounds, is unrelated to the effectiveness of a LeVeen shunt in managing ascites. Choice D, decreased serum albumin, is also not a direct indicator of the shunt's effectiveness in draining ascitic fluid.

3. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Anxiety and restlessness
• B. Increased bowel movements
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
• D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
• D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.

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