HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
- C. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- D. ‘I should limit my caffeine intake to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The statement ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms’ indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.
2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Subcutaneous emphysema
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the assessment finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can compromise respiratory function and lead to serious complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% may be concerning but does not require immediate intervention as it is still within an acceptable range. Crepitus around the insertion site is common after chest tube placement and may not always indicate a problem. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention in this context.
4. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
- B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
- C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
- D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.
5. The nurse is caring for a 17-year-old male who fell 20 feet 5 months ago while climbing the side of a cliff and has been in a sustained vegetative state since the accident. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care
- B. Maintain silence during care to avoid overstimulation
- C. Play soothing music in the background
- D. Limit visitors to immediate family only
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Talking directly to the adolescent is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps maintain a sense of connection and respect, even if the response is not evident. Maintaining silence may lead to isolation and hinder any potential communication attempts. Playing soothing music may not provide the personal interaction needed for connection. Limiting visitors to immediate family only may deprive the patient of diverse interactions that could be beneficial for their emotional well-being.
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