Nursing Elites

1. A client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid drinking milk
• B. Eat three large meals a day
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods
• D. Increase fluid intake with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing stomach acid production. Avoiding spicy foods can help reduce discomfort and prevent further irritation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is not advised for GERD as it can trigger acid production. Eating three large meals a day can put pressure on the stomach, worsening symptoms. Increasing fluid intake with meals can lead to bloating and worsen GERD symptoms by causing the stomach to expand, pushing more acid into the esophagus.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. By administering the antiemetic before meals, the nurse can help prevent the onset of nausea, allowing the client to eat more comfortably. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice B) is important for maintaining oral hygiene but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) and offering clear liquids (Choice D) are generally recommended for clients experiencing nausea, but administering an antiemetic is a more targeted approach to specifically address and manage the symptom.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
• C. Check the client's blood pressure
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.

4. Nurses working in labor and delivery are demanding a change in policy because they believe they are required to float more often than nurses on other units. However, floating to labor and delivery is not reciprocated because other nurses are not competent to provide highly specialized obstetrical skills. What action is best for the nurse-manager to implement?

• A. Require cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses
• B. Propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery
• C. Remind nurses that floating is an administrative policy
• D. Encourage nurses to share their feelings with administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse-manager to implement is to propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery. This approach allows nurses to manage their schedules, ensuring a fair balance of workloads. Requiring cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses (Choice A) may not be feasible or necessary for all units. Reminding nurses that floating is an administrative policy (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of workload balance. Encouraging nurses to share their feelings with administration (Choice D) may not lead to a concrete solution for the unequal floating concerns.

5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

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