a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a colostomy about appropriate food choices which of the following foods should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a colostomy about appropriate food choices. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are a good protein source and are less likely to cause blockage or odor issues in clients with colostomies. Grapes, pasta, and dried fruits can be problematic for individuals with colostomies as they may cause digestive issues, blockages, or increased gas production. Grapes have skins that are hard to digest, pasta can cause constipation or blockage, and dried fruits are high in fiber which can lead to blockages.

2. When introducing solid foods to an infant, what food should be recommended to be introduced first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When introducing solid foods to infants, iron-fortified cereal is usually recommended as the first food due to its high nutritional value and the importance of iron for the baby's development. Strained fruits (choice A) are often introduced later due to their higher sugar content. Pureed meats (choice B) and cooked egg whites (choice C) are usually introduced after iron-fortified cereal to provide additional sources of protein and other nutrients.

3. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

4. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

5. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

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