Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cancer awareness. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free cancer screenings
• B. lectures on cancer prevention
• C. distribution of educational materials
• D. testimonials from cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings should be included in the community health fair to best engage participants. This activity provides immediate, valuable information about participants' cancer risk, making it highly engaging and actionable. While lectures on cancer prevention and distribution of educational materials are informative, they may not offer the same level of immediate engagement and impact as free screenings. Testimonials from cancer survivors, although inspiring, do not provide participants with direct information about their own cancer risk, making them less effective in engaging participants actively.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and coma. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choice A, a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, is also within the normal range and is not directly related to SIADH. Choice C, serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg, is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and may not be the most critical parameter to address in a client with SIADH and severe hyponatremia.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

4. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

5. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

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