Nursing Elites

1. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

• A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
• B. Low LDL cholesterol
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

2. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L.
• B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting the medication.
• C. A blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
• D. A serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

3. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
• B. Monitor for ketonuria.
• C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
• D. Monitor for hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

4. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client?

• A. Assign an RN to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
• B. Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with self-care activities
• C. Delegate complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel
• D. Supervise a nursing assistant for skin care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best care assignment for the client with a skin tear and hematoma is to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care. This ensures proper wound care while utilizing the skills of the nursing assistant effectively. Assigning an RN to supervise the nursing assistant is appropriate as it provides the necessary expertise for wound care supervision. Delegating complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel may not be suitable for a client with specific wound care needs. Helping the client with self-care activities may not directly address the urgent need for proper wound care in this situation.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged home. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Limit fluid intake to prevent lung congestion
• B. Avoid all physical activity to conserve energy
• C. Perform pursed-lip breathing during activities
• D. Increase oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pursed-lip breathing helps control breathing and improves oxygen exchange in clients with COPD. It can ease shortness of breath during activities and should be included in discharge teaching to manage symptoms. Option A is incorrect as adequate fluid intake is important for thinning mucus in COPD. Option B is wrong as physical activity, as tolerated, is beneficial for COPD patients. Option D is also incorrect because changing oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

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