a nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client which one of these findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

2. The nurse instructs a client to use an incentive spirometer. The client performs a return demonstration as seen in the video. Which action should the nurse take in response to the return demonstration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in response to the return demonstration of using an incentive spirometer is to remind the client to cough after using the device. Coughing helps clear secretions from the lungs and promotes lung expansion. Instructing the client to inhale more deeply (Choice A) is not necessary as the primary focus after using the spirometer is to clear secretions. Praising the client for correct usage (Choice C) is positive but does not address the essential step of coughing. Suggesting increasing the frequency of spirometer use (Choice D) is not the immediate action needed after the demonstration.

3. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

4. During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with fluid overload. The most reliable indicator of fluid volume status is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume status as it reflects changes in body fluid balance accurately. Body weight alone can fluctuate due to various factors, including food intake and bowel movements, which may not accurately represent fluid status. Intake and output provide information on fluid balance over time but may not reflect immediate changes. Skin turgor is a physical assessment finding that indicates hydration status, not overall fluid volume status.

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