a nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client which one of these findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.

3. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

4. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

5. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.

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