Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
• B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
• C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
• D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.

2. A client with Addison's disease becomes confused and weak. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately.
• B. Check the client’s electrolyte levels.
• C. Administer a dose of normal saline.
• D. Measure the client’s blood pressure in both arms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately. In Addison's disease, confusion and weakness can be signs of an adrenal crisis. Administering hydrocortisone promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Checking electrolyte levels (Choice B) is important but not the first action in managing an acute adrenal crisis. Administering normal saline (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Measuring blood pressure in both arms (Choice D) is not the initial action needed to address the client's confusion and weakness in Addison's disease.

3. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim. What is the most important teaching point?

• A. Take the medication only when symptoms are severe.
• B. Take the medication until symptoms disappear.
• C. Report any pain or burning with urination.
• D. Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.' It is crucial for clients to complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed to ensure that the infection is fully eradicated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should not be reserved for severe symptoms only; they should be taken as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the medication once symptoms disappear may lead to a relapse of the infection. Choice C is important but not the most crucial teaching point when compared to completing the full course of antibiotics.

5. A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Bright red blood in the vomit.
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate.
• C. Coffee ground emesis.
• D. Dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.

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