Nursing Elites

1. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased peristalsis
• C. Passage of flatus
• D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.

2. A client is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse instructs the client to notify the health care provider (HCP) if which of the following occurs?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Tremors
• C. Cold intolerance
• D. Excessively dry skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a sign of excessive doses of levothyroxine, indicating hyperthyroidism. It is important for the client to report tremors to the healthcare provider to prevent complications associated with overdosing on levothyroxine.

3. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

4. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

5. The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:

• A. Acne
• B. Eczema
• C. Hair loss
• D. Herpes simplex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Azelaic acid (Azelex) is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. It works by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes in the skin. Therefore, if a client is prescribed azelaic acid, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for acne.

Similar Questions