Nursing Elites

1. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased peristalsis
• C. Passage of flatus
• D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• D. I will take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.

3. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication before a meal.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol) is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Glipizide stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It is usually taken before a meal, not necessarily on an empty stomach. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent interactions with the medication. Taking the medication before bedtime is not the typical recommendation.

5. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client:

• A. Cut the dose in half.
• B. Discontinue the medication.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider (HCP).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate can cause headaches, which usually disappear during continued therapy. Taking the medication with food or meals can help alleviate the headache. It is important to recommend this approach before considering dose adjustments or discontinuation of the medication. Contacting the healthcare provider would be necessary if the headache persists despite taking the medication with food.

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