HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI
1. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased peristalsis
- C. Passage of flatus
- D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Use the medication as a rescue inhaler.
- B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is not a rescue inhaler but a maintenance medication for COPD. The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler. This practice helps prevent dry mouth and throat irritation, common side effects of tiotropium. There are no specific recommendations to take tiotropium on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water.
3. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.
4. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Constipation
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.
5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Fever
- B. Headache
- C. Nausea
- D. Oliguria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.
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