Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of pancreatitis should avoid which of the following food choices?

• A. Noodles
• B. Vegetable soup
• C. Baked fish
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like cheddar cheese as they can exacerbate symptoms. Noodles, vegetable soup, and baked fish are generally lower in fat and may be better tolerated by clients with pancreatitis.

2. A nurse is assisting with the development of an education program for a community group about intake of vitamins and minerals in the diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of vitamin C?

• A. ½ cup green pepper
• B. 1 medium orange
• C. ½ cup cabbage
• D. 1 medium tomato

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1 medium orange. Oranges are well-known for being rich in vitamin C, an essential nutrient for immune function and skin health. While choices A, C, and D also contain some vitamin C, the medium orange provides a higher amount of this vitamin compared to a ½ cup of green pepper, ½ cup of cabbage, or a medium tomato.

3. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

4. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

• A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
• B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
• C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
• D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

Similar Questions