HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?
- A. Calcium chloride
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
- D. Large doses of vitamin D
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.
2. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:
- A. Prednisone
- B. Sulfisoxazole
- C. Furosemide (Lasix)
- D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.
3. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hearing loss
- C. Headache
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Increase the dose of insulin while taking prednisone.
- B. Take the prednisone with food.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely.
- D. Do not discontinue prednisone abruptly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.
5. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.
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