Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client to lay on the surgical incision.
• B. Measure the specific gravity of the client’s urine.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medications.
• D. Assess the rate and quality of the client’s pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

2. A healthcare professional reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which results from the client’s urinalysis should the healthcare professional identify as normal? (Select all that apply.)

• A. pH: 6
• B. Specific gravity: 1.015
• C. Glucose: negative
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a urinalysis, a pH of 6 is within the normal range (typically between 4.6 and 8); a specific gravity of 1.015 is considered normal (usually ranging between 1.005 to 1.030); and a negative glucose result is also normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are correct as they fall within the normal values for a urinalysis. Choices A, B, and C are the correct answers, as the pH, specific gravity, and glucose levels are within the normal range for a urinalysis. Choice D is correct because all the listed values are normal. Choices A, B, and C are the correct options as they meet the criteria for normal urinalysis values. The other choices do not fall within the normal range for a urinalysis.

3. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

4. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Heart rate
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

5. A client has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The physician has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which of the following items should the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink?

• A. Straw
• B. Napkin
• C. Oxygen saturation monitor
• D. Suction equipment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, when a client has just regained bowel sounds and is prescribed a clear liquid diet, the nurse needs to consider the possibility of impaired swallow reflexes due to anesthesia effects, leading to an increased risk of aspiration. Despite checking the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids, having suction equipment readily available in the client's room is essential to manage any potential aspiration risk. Therefore, the correct answer is suction equipment (choice D). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a straw, napkin, and oxygen saturation monitor may be useful in other situations, they are not directly related to managing the risk of aspiration associated with offering fluids to a client post-surgery.

Similar Questions