HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?
- A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
- B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
- C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
- D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.
2. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Initiate a structured eating plan for the client
- B. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
- C. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels
- D. Provide education on healthy eating habits
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.
3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
- B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
- C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the muscle groups of males.
- D. Damage to the spinal cord due to birth trauma from a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.
4. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?
- A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
- B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
- C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.
5. A mother reports to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her toddler has had a fever and sore throat for the past two days. The nurse observes several swollen red spots on the child's body, some of which are fluid-filled blisters. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
- B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
- C. Cover the draining vesicles with a dressing
- D. Implement transmission precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of swollen red spots and fluid-filled blisters may indicate a contagious condition. Implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the clinic setting.
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