a mother brings her 2 month old son to the clinic for a well baby exam during the assessment the nurse finds that the right testicle is not descended
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A 12-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is under the nurse's care. The child’s parent asks how to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective way to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity in a child with type 1 diabetes is to ensure they eat a snack before exercising. Eating a snack before exercise helps maintain blood glucose levels by providing additional glucose for energy during physical activity, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Giving extra insulin before exercise (Choice A) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia as it lowers blood glucose levels further. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) is not recommended as exercise is important for overall health. Monitoring blood glucose levels after exercise (Choice D) is essential but does not directly prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity.

3. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

4. A 7-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the child’s parents about the importance of chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which statement by the parents indicates they need further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest physiotherapy should not be performed right after meals to avoid inducing vomiting. It should be done before meals or at least 1 hour after for effective mucus clearance and to prevent any potential complications like vomiting. Choice A is correct as performing CPT before meals helps in loosening mucus. Choice B is also correct as CPT is indeed helpful in loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice D is correct as CPT plays a crucial role in the treatment of cystic fibrosis.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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