Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

• A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
• B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
• C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
• D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?

• A. Rapid antigen detection test.
• B. Throat culture.
• C. Complete blood count (CBC).
• D. Chest X-ray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.

3. What action should the nurse implement when the infusion of chemotherapy via an implanted medication port is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia at the outpatient oncology clinic?

• A. Administer Zofran
• B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
• C. Flush mediport with saline and heparin solution
• D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when the chemotherapy infusion is complete is to flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This process helps prevent clotting and ensures the patency of the port, which is essential for future medication administrations and blood draws. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion. Obtaining blood samples (Choice B) for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets is important but not the immediate action after completing the infusion. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not required unless there is a specific indication for it.

4. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?

• A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
• B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
• C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
• D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.

5. The mother of a one-month-old calls the clinic to report that the back of her infant's head is flat. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Turn the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping.
• B. Prop the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping.
• C. Place a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back.
• D. Position the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active can help prevent flat spots on the head. This position allows for more natural movement and prevents prolonged pressure on one area of the head, reducing the risk of developing a flat spot. Turning the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping (choice A) is not recommended as it does not address the issue of flat spots. Propping the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping (choice B) may increase the risk of falls and is not suitable for a one-month-old. Placing a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back (choice C) should be avoided due to the risk of suffocation and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

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