HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?
- A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
- B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
- C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
- D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.
2. The caregiver is teaching a group of parents about injury prevention for toddlers. Which statement by a parent indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will keep all cleaning supplies locked away.
- B. I will teach my child how to swim this summer.
- C. I will make sure my child wears a helmet while riding a tricycle.
- D. I will place my child in a car seat for every car ride.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching children how to swim is valuable, but parental supervision around water is essential to prevent drowning. It's crucial to emphasize constant supervision when young children are near water, regardless of their swimming abilities. The other choices (A, C, and D) demonstrate appropriate safety measures for injury prevention in toddlers, such as securing cleaning supplies, ensuring helmet use during tricycle rides, and using a car seat for every car ride.
3. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?
- A. Administer a corticosteroid
- B. Obtain a throat culture
- C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
- D. Place the child in an upright position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.
4. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the scheduled procedure. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
- C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
- D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial in this situation because the passage of a brown stool may indicate the resolution of intussusception. It is important to keep the healthcare provider informed about any changes in the infant's condition to ensure appropriate care and management. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not necessary based on the passage of brown stool. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not indicated in this scenario since the brown stool is likely a positive sign. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the priority at this moment as notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence.
5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the pulse deficit.
- B. Administer the scheduled dose.
- C. Calculate the safe dose range.
- D. Review the serum digoxin level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.
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