Nursing Elites

1. A molecule's specific heat is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 gram of that molecule by:

• A. One degree Celsius
• B. Five degrees Celsius
• C. Two degrees Celsius
• D. Four degrees Celsius

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'One degree Celsius.' Specific heat is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius. This property is specific to each substance and is used in various calculations involving heat and temperature changes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because specific heat is always measured per one degree Celsius increase in temperature for one gram of the substance, not five degrees, two degrees, or four degrees.

2. At the beginning of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the diploid parent cell have?

• A. 23
• B. 24
• C. 46
• D. 54

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 46. At the start of meiosis, the diploid parent cell contains 46 chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved, resulting in each gamete having 23 chromosomes. Choice A (23) is incorrect because that is the number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the parent cell. Choice B (24) and Choice D (54) are also incorrect as they do not reflect the correct number of chromosomes in a diploid parent cell at the beginning of meiosis.

3. Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?

• A. Punnett square
• B. Chi-square
• C. Microscope
• D. None of these

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.

4. What is located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

• A. Microvilli
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Lysosomes
• D. Ribosomes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes, not microvilli, mitochondria, or lysosomes. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, making them an essential component of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

5. Which of the following is not one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up the DNA structure?

• A. Adenine
• B. Guanine
• C. Uracil
• D. Thymine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uracil. Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA. The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine. Choice A, Adenine, is a nitrogenous base in DNA. Choice B, Guanine, is another nitrogenous base in DNA. Choice D, Thymine, is also one of the four nitrogenous bases in DNA. Therefore, the correct answer is Uracil (Choice C).

Similar Questions