Nursing Elites

1. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

2. Assessment findings of a 4-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 96.8°F (35.8°C), heart rate of 150 beats/minute with a soft murmur, irregular respiratory rate at 64 breaths/minute, jitteriness, hypotonia, and weak cry. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket.
• B. Obtain a heel stick blood glucose level.
• C. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel.
• D. Document the findings in the record.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The assessment findings in the newborn, such as jitteriness, weak cry, and hypotonia, are indicative of potential hypoglycemia. To confirm this suspicion, the nurse should obtain a heel stick blood glucose level, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Checking the blood glucose level will provide crucial information to determine the newborn's glucose status and guide further management if hypoglycemia is confirmed. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoglycemia and may not effectively raise the blood glucose level. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel is not indicated for assessing hypoglycemia. Documenting the findings in the record is important but does not address the immediate concern of assessing and managing potential hypoglycemia.

3. A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the LPN/LVN to ask this client?

• A. Which symptom did you experience first?
• B. Are you consuming large amounts of salty foods?
• C. Have you traveled to a foreign country recently?
• D. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rheumatic fever can lead to rheumatic heart disease, which may be exacerbated during pregnancy, causing symptoms like pedal edema and dyspnea. Asking about a history of rheumatic fever is crucial in this case to assess the potential impact on the client's current symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario as they do not directly relate to the presenting symptoms and history of rheumatic fever.

4. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 75ml/hr
• B. 100ml/hr
• C. 50ml/hr
• D. 25ml/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

5. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

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