one day after vaginal delivery of a full term baby a postpartum clients white blood cell count is 15000mm3 what action should the nurse take first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

1. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

2. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client’s nursing care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep airway equipment at the bedside to manage potential convulsions effectively. This proactive measure is essential to ensure rapid response and intervention in case of convulsions, which can occur in clients with eclampsia.

3. In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.

4. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

5. What action should be implemented when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client is to have the client empty her bladder. This is essential to ensure an accurate measurement because a full bladder can displace the uterus and affect the accuracy of the assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the client should lie flat on her back, not on her left side, to measure fundal height accurately. Choice C is incorrect because Leopold's maneuvers are used to determine the position of the fetus, not to measure fundal height. Choice D is incorrect as giving the client cold juice is not necessary for measuring fundal height.

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