HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- B. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- C. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
- D. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.
2. Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?
- A. Polydipsia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Nocturia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.
3. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Administer hypertonic saline
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.
4. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager's actions?
- A. Resource allocation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Job analysis and redesign
- D. Planning for the future
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Planning for the future.' In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in strategic planning by considering policy changes and community dynamics to forecast potential impacts on the unit's functioning. This decisional activity involves anticipating future changes, challenges, and opportunities, and preparing the unit to adapt accordingly. Choice A, 'Resource allocation,' involves distributing resources effectively to support daily operations, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's actions described. Choice B, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing current activities and performance to ensure adherence to standards and goals, rather than proactively planning for future changes as the nurse manager is doing. Choice C, 'Job analysis and redesign,' pertains to evaluating and modifying job roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not directly related to the strategic forecasting and planning involved in anticipating organizational and community impacts.
5. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in?
- A. Interpersonal activities
- B. Decisional activities
- C. Informational activities
- D. Transformational activities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decisional activities. A nurse manager conducting evaluations and reviewing staffing needs for the future involves making decisions related to resource allocation, planning, and problem-solving. These activities fall under the category of decisional activities in management. Choice A, Interpersonal activities, would involve activities like communicating, motivating, and leading staff. Choice C, Informational activities, would involve activities like gathering and disseminating information. Choice D, Transformational activities, would involve inspiring and motivating staff to achieve organizational goals through vision and change.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access