a client with dm is scheduled for surgery the nurse should plan to
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.

2. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

3. The client has been diagnosed with primary aldosteronism. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism involves the overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, in primary aldosteronism, the nurse would expect to find hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia (choice A), hyponatremia (choice C), or hypercalcemia (choice D).

4. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

5. When implementing a new policy on the unit, what process should a nurse manager follow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When introducing a new policy on the unit, it is essential for the nurse manager to involve staff members in the decision-making process. This approach helps in gathering input and insights from the team, fostering a sense of ownership and commitment. By communicating the reasons behind the policy change, the nurse manager ensures transparency and promotes understanding among the staff, leading to buy-in and acceptance of the new policy. Choice B is incorrect because implementing a policy change without involving staff and explaining the rationale may lead to resistance or lack of understanding. Choice C is not ideal as delegation without active involvement and communication with the team may result in misunderstandings or incomplete implementation. Choice D lacks the crucial step of involving staff in the decision-making process, which is important for successful policy implementation and team engagement.

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