HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- B. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- C. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
- D. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin
- B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.
3. Which of the following is an example of nonmaleficence in nursing practice?
- A. Administering pain medication as prescribed to prevent patient discomfort.
- B. Ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment that they have refused.
- C. Ensuring that a patient receives appropriate care without causing harm.
- D. Encouraging a patient to express their concerns and fears about a procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In nursing practice, ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment they have refused is an example of nonmaleficence. Choice A focuses on beneficence by providing pain relief. Choice C is more aligned with beneficence as it emphasizes providing appropriate care without harm. Choice D pertains to patient communication but does not directly address the concept of nonmaleficence.
4. Which of the following describes the role of the nurse in advocating for a patient?
- A. The nurse ensures that the patient has all the information needed to make an informed decision about their care.
- B. The nurse advocates for the patient by communicating their needs and preferences to the healthcare team.
- C. The nurse advocates for the patient by ensuring that they receive the care they need and by protecting their rights.
- D. The nurse advocates for the patient by helping them navigate the healthcare system and access necessary resources.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurses advocate for patients by ensuring that they receive the necessary care and by protecting their rights. This involves speaking up for patients, ensuring they are treated with respect, and helping them access appropriate healthcare services. Option A, providing information for informed decision-making, is an important aspect of nursing care but not the central role of advocacy. Option B, communicating patients' needs to the healthcare team, is essential but more focused on teamwork and collaboration. Option D, helping patients navigate the healthcare system and access resources, is valuable but not the primary definition of advocacy in nursing.
5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?
- A. Prominent U waves
- B. Prolonged PR interval
- C. Depressed ST segment
- D. Widened QRS complexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
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