Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

2. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority for a female client with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess
• B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing
• C. Body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema
• D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess. In hyperthyroidism, increased metabolic rate leads to increased nutritional needs, causing weight loss and muscle wasting. Therefore, addressing imbalanced nutrition due to excessive thyroid hormone is a priority. Choice A is incorrect as hyperthyroidism typically leads to weight loss, not weight gain. Choice B is less of a priority as skin issues are secondary to the metabolic disturbances caused by hyperthyroidism. Choice C, body image disturbance, is important but addressing the client's nutritional needs should take precedence to prevent further complications.

3. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

4. Nurse Ronn is assessing a client with possible Cushing's syndrome. In a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse would expect to find:

• A. Hypotension.
• B. Thick, coarse skin.
• C. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area.
• D. Weight gain in arms and legs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's syndrome, the characteristic features include central obesity with deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area, often referred to as a 'buffalo hump.' Hypotension (Choice A) is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more common. Thick, coarse skin (Choice B) is seen in conditions like hypothyroidism, not specifically in Cushing's syndrome. Weight gain in the arms and legs (Choice D) is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; rather, weight gain is more prominent in the central areas of the body.

5. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.

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