Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

2. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:

• A. I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon.
• B. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%.
• C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.
• D. 10 U of fast-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the initial treatment should involve administering 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. This helps rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels. Choices A and D are incorrect as administering glucagon or fast-acting insulin is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious client. Choice B, an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%, is a more invasive and aggressive intervention that is not typically indicated for a conscious client with hypoglycemia.

3. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing up involves building a positive relationship with one's manager by showing respect and appreciation. Choice A is not the best way to manage up as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, rather than proactively showing respect. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests assisting the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses, which is more about helping the manager rather than managing up. Choice C is not the best option as transferring to a different unit should not be the first step in managing up, as it does not address the relationship with the current manager. Therefore, the best way for a follower to manage up is by showing respect and appreciation for the manager, even in conversations with coworkers.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine. The nurse should teach the client to expect which of the following side effects?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine treatment, it often leads to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue. This occurs as a desired outcome of the treatment to reduce the overactive thyroid function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased heart rate, hypercalcemia, and weight loss are not expected side effects of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. Instead, the goal is to suppress the overactive thyroid, leading to a hypothyroid state.

5. Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Polydipsia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Nocturia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.

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