Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

2. A patient with acute congestive heart failure is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. Suspecting hyponatremia, what additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this patient if hyponatremia were present?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Decreased urinary output
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Increased specific gravity of the urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyponatremia, hyperactive bowel sounds are expected due to increased gastrointestinal motility. Dry skin (Choice A) is not a typical sign of hyponatremia. Decreased urinary output (Choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or renal issues, not specifically hyponatremia. Increased specific gravity of the urine (Choice D) is a sign of concentrated urine, which is not a characteristic finding in hyponatremia.

3. A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should Nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect?

• A. Dysuria
• B. Leg cramps
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a potential adverse effect of levothyroxine, indicating overmedication. Dysuria (painful urination) is not typically associated with levothyroxine. Leg cramps are not a common adverse effect of levothyroxine. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine; instead, it may be a sign of other eye-related conditions or medication side effects.

4. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

5. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?

• A. Only when feeling unwell.
• B. Only before meals.
• C. Before meals and at bedtime.
• D. Only after meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.

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