HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
- B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
- C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
- D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.
2. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
- B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
- C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.
3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Troponin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Confusion and altered mental status
- C. Increased abdominal girth
- D. Yellowing of the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.
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