Nursing Elites

1. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

• A. 45
• B. 15 mL
• C. 4
• D. 13

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to suture a 10-year-old with a lacerated forehead. Both parents and the 12-year-old sibling are at the child’s bedside. Which instruction best supports the family?

• A. While waiting for the healthcare provider, only one family member may stay with the child.
• B. All family members should leave while the healthcare provider sutures the child’s forehead.
• C. It is best if the sibling goes to the waiting room until the suturing is completed.
• D. Please decide among yourselves who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the best instruction as it involves the family in the decision-making process, allowing them to choose who will stay with the child during the suturing procedure. This approach supports the family's comfort and participation in the child's care, promoting a sense of control and family-centered care. Choices A, B, and C do not promote family involvement and may lead to feelings of exclusion or lack of control among the family members.

3. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

4. A pregnant woman in the first trimester of pregnancy has hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dl and a hematocrit of 25.1%. What food should the nurse encourage this client to include in her diet?

• A. Carrots
• B. Chicken
• C. Yogurt
• D. Cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is common for women to experience a drop in hemoglobin levels, leading to anemia. Chicken is a good dietary source of iron, which is essential for increasing hemoglobin levels. Iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more readily absorbed by the body compared to plant-based sources. Therefore, encouraging the client to include chicken in her diet can help improve her hemoglobin levels and combat anemia.

5. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

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