HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?
- A. 45
- B. 15 mL
- C. 4
- D. 13
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.
2. A neonate with congenital adrenal hypoplasia (CAH) presents with ambiguous genitalia. What is the primary nursing consideration when supporting the parents of a child with this anomaly?
- A. Discuss the need for cortisol and aldosterone replacement therapy after discharge
- B. Support the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child
- C. Offer information about ultrasonography and genotyping to determine sex assignment
- D. Explain that corrective surgical procedures consistent with sex assignment can be delayed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Supporting the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child is crucial as it respects the parental role in making this important decision and helps provide emotional support during a challenging time. The primary focus should be on helping the parents navigate the complexities and implications of determining the sex assignment for their child with ambiguous genitalia.
3. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs
- A. two weeks before menstruation.
- B. immediately after menstruation.
- C. immediately before menstruation.
- D. three weeks before menstruation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.
4. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?
- A. Assess temperature every hour.
- B. Allow liberal family visitation.
- C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
- D. Keep an airway at the bedside.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.
5. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?
- A. Round ligament strain.
- B. Chorioamnionitis.
- C. Abruptio placentae.
- D. Viral infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.
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