Nursing Elites

1. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

• A. 13 ml/hour.
• B. 63 ml/hour.
• C. 80 ml/hour.
• D. 125 ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct calculation involves dividing the total volume by the total time. In this case, 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. The dose of KCl is not used in the calculation as the focus is on the rate of infusion over the specified time period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (80 ml/hour) and Choice D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect calculations and do not match the correct rate of infusion required.

2. The client is being taught about the use of syringes and needles for home administration of medications. Which action by the client indicates an understanding of standard precautions?

• A. Remove needle before discarding used syringes
• B. Wear gloves to dispose of the needle and syringe
• C. Don a face mask before administering the medication
• D. Wash hands before handling the needle and syringe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Washing hands before handling needles and syringes is a crucial aspect of standard precautions to prevent infections. This practice helps reduce the risk of transferring microorganisms from the hands to the syringes and needles, thus promoting safety during medication administration.

3. After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Monitor the client's weight.
• D. Check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.

4. When suctioning a tracheostomy, which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

• A. Use a sterile tube each time and suction for 30 seconds.
• B. Use sterile technique and turn the suction off as the catheter is introduced.
• C. Use clean technique and suction for 10 seconds.
• D. Discard the catheter at the end of every shift.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suctioning a tracheostomy, it is crucial to use sterile technique to prevent infections. Turning off the suction as the catheter is introduced is important to avoid trauma and injury to the tracheal walls. This technique helps maintain the integrity of the tracheostomy site and ensures proper care for the patient.

5. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

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