Nursing Elites

1. A client presents at the clinic with blepharitis. What instructions should the nurse provide for home care?

• A. Use bilateral eye patches while sleeping to prevent injury to the eyes.
• B. Wear sunglasses when outdoors to prevent photophobia.
• C. Apply cold compresses to reduce inflammation.
• D. Apply warm moist compresses then gently scrub eyelids with diluted baby shampoo.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blepharitis is managed with warm moist compresses to help loosen debris and oils on the eyelids, followed by gentle scrubbing with a mild solution like diluted baby shampoo. This helps in controlling the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using eye patches while sleeping is not a standard recommendation for blepharitis. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sunglasses does not directly treat blepharitis but may help with light sensitivity. Choice C is incorrect as cold compresses are not typically used for blepharitis, as warm compresses are more effective in managing the condition.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?

• A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
• B. Bradycardia and constipation
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
• D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.

5. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

• A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
• B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
• C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
• D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

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