Nursing Elites

1. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?

• A. Trousseau's sign
• B. Homans' sign
• C. Hegar's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.

2. Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in patient education?

• A. The nurse is responsible for providing patients with information they need to make informed decisions about their care.
• B. The nurse provides education to the patient and their family to help them understand the care plan and make informed decisions.
• C. The nurse is responsible for providing patients with written materials to help them understand their condition and treatment options.
• D. The nurse provides patients with verbal and written instructions on how to manage their care at home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in patient education involves providing patients with the necessary information to make informed decisions about their care. This includes explaining treatment options, potential risks and benefits, and answering any questions the patient may have. Choice B is incorrect because while nurses do educate patients and families, the primary focus is on empowering patients to make informed decisions. Choice C is incorrect as providing written materials is a part of patient education but not the sole responsibility of the nurse. Choice D is incorrect because while nurses do provide instructions on managing care at home, patient education goes beyond just the home care aspect to encompass a broader understanding of the patient's condition and treatment.

3. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?

• A. When she is comfortable in her current position
• B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses
• C. As soon as a position opens
• D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a nurse manager position when they have developed both leadership and clinical expertise. This ensures that they are well-prepared for the responsibilities of the role. Choice A is incorrect because being comfortable in the current position does not necessarily equate to having the required skills for a nurse manager role. Choice B is incorrect as mentoring other new nurses, while valuable, may not directly align with the skills needed for a managerial position. Choice C is incorrect as applying for a nurse manager position solely because a position is available does not guarantee readiness for the role.

4. Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:

• A. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon
• B. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements
• C. Eating a candy bar if lightheadedness occurs
• D. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet is beneficial for individuals with hypoglycemia as it helps in maintaining stable blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect as increasing saturated fat intake and fasting can worsen hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as vitamins and iron supplements do not directly address hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as consuming a candy bar may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause of hypoglycemia.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

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