Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a recent smoking cessation program. Which outcome indicates success?

• A. increased attendance at support group meetings
• B. reduced number of cigarettes smoked per day
• C. higher sales of nicotine replacement products
• D. lower relapse rate among participants

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: lower relapse rate among participants. A lower relapse rate indicates that participants are successfully quitting smoking and maintaining their cessation, which is the ultimate goal of a smoking cessation program. Increased attendance at support group meetings (choice A) may demonstrate engagement but does not necessarily indicate successful smoking cessation. Similarly, higher sales of nicotine replacement products (choice C) may reflect increased product usage but not necessarily successful smoking cessation. While reducing the number of cigarettes smoked per day (choice B) is a positive change, it does not guarantee successful smoking cessation or long-term abstinence.

2. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?

• A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
• B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
• C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
• D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.

3. In conducting a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol is at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease due to multiple risk factors. Smoking and high cholesterol are significant contributors to the development of cardiovascular issues. Prioritizing his evaluation and intervention is crucial to address these modifiable risk factors. The other family members, though they may have risk factors as well, do not present with the same level of immediate risk based on the information provided.

4. During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?

• A. Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine.
• B. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space.
• C. Dullness over the lung fields.
• D. Increased tactile fremitus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine is a normal finding. This phenomenon is caused by the regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery due to waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Choices B, C, and D describe abnormal findings during a physical assessment. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space indicates an abnormal heart sound, dullness over the lung fields may suggest consolidation or fluid in the lungs, and increased tactile fremitus can be a sign of lung consolidation or pathology.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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