HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?
- A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
- B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
- C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who has COPD and chest pain related to a recent fall. What nursing intervention requires the greatest caution when caring for a client with COPD?
- A. Administering narcotics for pain relief
- B. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Applying oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
- D. Assisting the client with deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applying oxygen therapy at a high flow rate. In clients with COPD, high levels of supplemental oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe, leading to carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. Oxygen therapy must be administered cautiously to prevent worsening respiratory status. Administering narcotics for pain relief (Choice A) can be necessary but should be done judiciously. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and assisting with deep breathing exercises (Choice D) are generally beneficial interventions for clients with COPD and should not require the same level of caution as high-flow oxygen therapy.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Increase the TPN infusion rate if the client is hungry
- B. Administer TPN via a peripheral IV line
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
- D. Ensure the TPN solution is refrigerated at all times
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.
4. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess for signs of infection.
- B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
- C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
- D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.
5. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?
- A. The client has been taking multiple medications
- B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
- C. The client's vital signs are stable
- D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access