HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness and fatigue.
- B. Monitor for increased appetite and weight gain.
- C. Monitor for nausea and vomiting.
- D. Monitor for blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects are signs of digoxin toxicity, which can be life-threatening. These symptoms indicate an overdose of digoxin, requiring immediate medical attention. Muscle weakness and fatigue (Choice A) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not indicative of digoxin toxicity either. Nausea and vomiting (Choice C) are common side effects of digoxin but are not specific signs of toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects.
2. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
3. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which of the following should be emphasized?
- A. Increase daily intake of sodium.
- B. Exercise regularly and maintain a healthy weight.
- C. Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Drink alcohol in moderation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial lifestyle changes in managing hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and improves heart health, while maintaining a healthy weight reduces the risk of hypertension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing daily intake of sodium can elevate blood pressure, reducing intake of potassium-rich foods is not recommended as potassium helps lower blood pressure, and drinking alcohol should be limited or avoided as it can raise blood pressure.
4. A client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Evaluate the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft.
- B. Instruct the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet.
- C. Recommend support stockings for venous return.
- D. Monitor the client's serum albumin levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema, the nurse should prioritize evaluating the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft. This assessment is crucial to determine if hemodialysis can be resumed, addressing the client's presenting issues effectively. Instructing the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet (choice B) may not address the underlying issue related to the CAPD. Recommending support stockings for venous return (choice C) is not directly relevant to the situation described. Monitoring the client's serum albumin levels (choice D) may be important but does not directly address the immediate concern of weight loss and increasing edema in a CAPD client.
5. Approximately how many primordial follicles are present in the cortex of the ovary at birth?
- A. 250,000
- B. 200,000
- C. 150,000
- D. 100,000
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 250,000. At birth, there are approximately 250,000 primordial follicles in the cortex of each ovary. These primordial follicles represent the reserve of oocytes that a female will have throughout her reproductive life. Choice B, 200,000, is incorrect as the number is higher. Choices C and D, 150,000 and 100,000 respectively, are also incorrect as they underestimate the actual number of primordial follicles present at birth.