Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old male client reports difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery. What intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

• A. Suggest taking a mild sedative before bed.
• B. Encourage physical activity before bedtime.
• C. Advise listening to calming music before bed.
• D. Recommend reading a book before bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to suggest to a 30-year-old male client experiencing difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery is to recommend taking a mild sedative before bed. A mild sedative can help manage anxiety and improve sleep in such situations. Encouraging physical activity before bedtime, advising to listen to calming music, or recommending reading a book may not directly address the client's anxiety and may not be as effective in promoting sleep in this scenario.

2. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

• A. Administer antipyretics as ordered
• B. Take a blood culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• D. Monitor vital signs every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
• B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
• C. Client reports increased energy levels
• D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

4. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

• A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
• B. Missed a dose of insulin
• C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
• D. Overexerted during exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT).
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

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