Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute.
• C. Take the medications in the morning.
• D. Weigh yourself daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

2. A client is taking docusate sodium (Colace). The nurse monitors which of the following to determine whether the client is experiencing a therapeutic effect from this medication?

• A. Abdominal pain
• B. Reduction in steatorrhea
• C. Hematest-negative stools
• D. Regular bowel movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of docusate sodium (Colace) is to soften stools and promote regular bowel movements, making option D the correct choice. Monitoring for regular bowel movements would indicate that the medication is working as intended by relieving or preventing constipation. Options A, B, and C are not directly related to the therapeutic effect of docusate sodium. Abdominal pain (option A) is a symptom that might indicate a problem rather than a therapeutic effect. Reduction in steatorrhea (option B) and Hematest-negative stools (option C) are not specific outcomes associated with docusate sodium.

3. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

4. While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?

• A. Nausea
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.

5. A healthcare provider notes that a client is receiving lamivudine (Epivir). The healthcare provider determines that this medication has been prescribed to treat which of the following?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Pharyngitis
• C. Tonic-clonic seizures
• D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lamivudine, known by the brand name Epivir, is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. This medication helps to inhibit the replication of HIV and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.

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