a client with end stage renal disease esrd is scheduled for hemodialysis which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immedi
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in this population. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of sepsis, which requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate threat to the client's well-being in the context of preparing for hemodialysis.

2. Which needle should the nurse use to administer intravenous fluids (IV) via a client's implanted port?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct needle to use for administering intravenous fluids via an implanted port is a non-coring (Huber) needle. This type of needle is specifically designed to access implanted ports without coring the septum, which helps prevent damage. Choice A, the one with the clamp and no needle, is incorrect as it does not describe a needle suitable for accessing an implanted port. Choice B, a butterfly needle, is not typically used for accessing implanted ports. Choice D, a standard hypodermic needle, is not ideal for accessing ports as it can damage the septum.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant in assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical in this scenario.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer intravenous insulin and glucose first. This intervention helps drive potassium back into the cells, lowering serum levels effectively. Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize cardiac membranes in severe hyperkalemia but does not address the underlying cause. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is used in metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Administering a loop diuretic (choice D) can help eliminate potassium but is not the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia in CKD.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

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