Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM demonstrates acute anxiety when first admitted for the treatment of hyperglycemia. The most appropriate intervention to decrease the client's anxiety would be to:

• A. Administer a sedative
• B. Make sure the client knows all the correct medical terms to understand what is happening.
• C. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety so that they will soon disappear.
• D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conveying empathy, trust, and respect can help reduce the client's anxiety and improve their overall experience during treatment. This approach creates a supportive environment and fosters a sense of safety and understanding for the client. Administering a sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention for anxiety, as it does not address the underlying emotional needs of the client. Making sure the client knows all the correct medical terms (Choice B) may increase anxiety by overwhelming the client with technical information. Ignoring signs and symptoms of anxiety (Choice C) can lead to worsening distress and potential complications in the client's care.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

3. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

4. A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide?

• A. Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.
• B. Your condition isn't chronic, so you won't need to wear a medical identification bracelet.
• C. You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.
• D. You won't need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking desmopressin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is choice C: 'You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.' Nasal congestion or blockage can interfere with the absorption of nasally administered desmopressin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unnecessary as the temperature of the suspension does not impact desmopressin administration. Choice B is incorrect as wearing a medical identification bracelet is essential for individuals with diabetes insipidus to alert healthcare providers in case of emergencies. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin to ensure proper hydration and medication effectiveness.

5. The client has hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following lab findings is consistent with this condition?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperparathyroidism leads to increased secretion of parathyroid hormone, which results in elevated calcium levels in the blood (hypercalcemia). Therefore, the correct lab finding consistent with hyperparathyroidism is hypercalcemia (Choice B). Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not indicative of hyperparathyroidism as the condition is associated with high calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is a low potassium level, which is not typically associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice D) refers to high phosphate levels and is not a characteristic finding in hyperparathyroidism.

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