Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM demonstrates acute anxiety when first admitted for the treatment of hyperglycemia. The most appropriate intervention to decrease the client's anxiety would be to:

• A. Administer a sedative
• B. Make sure the client knows all the correct medical terms to understand what is happening.
• C. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety so that they will soon disappear.
• D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conveying empathy, trust, and respect can help reduce the client's anxiety and improve their overall experience during treatment. This approach creates a supportive environment and fosters a sense of safety and understanding for the client. Administering a sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention for anxiety, as it does not address the underlying emotional needs of the client. Making sure the client knows all the correct medical terms (Choice B) may increase anxiety by overwhelming the client with technical information. Ignoring signs and symptoms of anxiety (Choice C) can lead to worsening distress and potential complications in the client's care.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:

• A. Increase metabolism
• B. Reduce anxiety
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.

3. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

4. A client is receiving levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Increased weight
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased energy levels. When a client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine, increased energy levels indicate that thyroid hormone levels are being normalized, which is a positive response to treatment. This improvement reflects the effectiveness of the medication in addressing the underlying hypothyroidism. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate and decreased appetite may be symptoms of hypothyroidism and would not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of levothyroxine. Increased weight could also be a symptom of hypothyroidism and does not directly reflect the medication's effectiveness.

5. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

• A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
• D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

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