Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer insulin as ordered
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin as ordered is the priority action when a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Insulin helps to lower the high blood glucose level and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to lower the blood glucose level. Notifying the healthcare provider and rechecking the blood glucose level can be important steps but should come after administering insulin to address the high glucose level promptly.

2. A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's temperature
• B. Assess the client's pain level
• C. Check the intravenous (IV) site for signs of phlebitis
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.

3. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?

• A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
• B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
• C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
• D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.

4. A healthcare professional is assisting with the development of an education program about nutritional risk among adolescents to a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply).

• A. Skipping more than three meals per week
• B. Eating fast food once a week
• C. Hearty appetite
• D. Drink whole milk to ensure adequate calcium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skipping more than three meals per week is an indicator of poor nutritional habits in adolescents. This can lead to inadequate nutrient intake and negatively impact growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with poor nutritional habits among adolescents. Eating fast food once a week may not necessarily indicate poor nutrition if the overall diet is balanced. Having a hearty appetite does not provide specific information about nutritional risk, as appetite can vary among individuals. While whole milk can be a source of calcium, it is not necessary to drink whole milk specifically to ensure adequate calcium intake, as there are other sources of calcium available.

5. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

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