Nursing Elites

1. A female client with Cushing's syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the admission assessment, Nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated, irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These findings are consistent with which problem?

• A. Depression
• B. Neuropathy
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Depression is a common psychological manifestation in clients with Cushing's syndrome. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and disheveled appearance are indicative of depressive symptoms rather than neuropathy, hypoglycemia, or hyperthyroidism. Neuropathy typically presents with sensory changes and motor deficits, which are not described in the scenario. Hypoglycemia would manifest with symptoms such as diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion, which are not mentioned. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

2. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
• B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
• C. Complete an incident record.
• D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse explains that this medication is used to:

• A. Increase thyroid hormone production
• B. Decrease thyroid hormone production
• C. Relieve symptoms such as tachycardia and anxiety
• D. Prevent weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which helps to reduce symptoms such as tachycardia (fast heart rate) and anxiety in individuals with hyperthyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because propranolol does not affect thyroid hormone production; it only addresses symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not prevent weight loss associated with hyperthyroidism.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged after receiving initial treatment. What should the nurse emphasize as a crucial instruction?

• A. Take insulin as prescribed, even if you are not eating.
• B. Avoid all forms of physical exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly and report any changes.
• D. Stop taking oral antidiabetic medication if your blood glucose levels are normal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is a critical aspect of managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. This allows the individual to track their blood sugar levels, understand the effectiveness of the treatment plan, and detect any fluctuations promptly. Option A is incorrect because insulin should be taken based on a prescribed schedule that correlates with meals to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option B is incorrect as physical exercise is beneficial for managing diabetes but should be done cautiously with adjustments in insulin or food intake. Option D is incorrect because discontinuing oral antidiabetic medications without healthcare provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

5. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

• A. 10-20%.
• B. 25-40%.
• C. 50-60%.
• D. 85-90%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

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