a female client with cushings syndrome is admitted to the medical surgical unit during the admission assessment nurse tyzz notes that the client is ag
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Leadership and Management

1. A female client with Cushing's syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the admission assessment, Nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated, irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These findings are consistent with which problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Depression is a common psychological manifestation in clients with Cushing's syndrome. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and disheveled appearance are indicative of depressive symptoms rather than neuropathy, hypoglycemia, or hyperthyroidism. Neuropathy typically presents with sensory changes and motor deficits, which are not described in the scenario. Hypoglycemia would manifest with symptoms such as diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion, which are not mentioned. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

2. A healthcare professional caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the healthcare professional note in a client with this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) is the correct assessment finding in a client with deficient fluid volume. This is because a decrease in CVP indicates reduced blood volume returning to the heart, which is consistent with hypovolemia. Lung congestion (Choice A) would be more indicative of fluid volume excess, not deficiency. Decreased hematocrit (Choice B) may be seen in conditions such as anemia but is not specific to deficient fluid volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is not typically associated with deficient fluid volume; in fact, hypovolemia often leads to decreased blood pressure.

3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

4. Why have recent polls placed nursing as one of the most trusted professions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Recent polls have identified nursing as one of the most trusted professions primarily because nurses possess the essential skills required to provide care to diverse populations. This includes cultural competence, empathy, effective communication, and clinical expertise. Choice A, engaging in lifelong learning, is indeed an important aspect of nursing practice; however, it is not the primary reason for the high level of trust placed in nurses. Choice B, abiding by a dress code, is a professional conduct issue and not directly linked to the trustworthiness of nurses. Choice D, passing the NCLEX exam for licensure, is a regulatory requirement and does not directly contribute to the trust placed in nurses by the public.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

Similar Questions

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