HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?
- A. You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.
- B. You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.
- C. You must restrict your fluid intake.
- D. You must report ringing in your ears immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, it is crucial to avoid activities such as coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose to prevent an increase in intracranial pressure or the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Coughing, sneezing, or nose blowing can strain the surgical site, potentially leading to complications. Lying flat for 24 hours is not typically required after this surgery. Fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. Ringing in the ears is not a common complication associated with this type of surgery.
2. A client with Addison's disease is being educated about managing the condition during times of stress. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Double the dose of corticosteroids during periods of stress.
- B. Skip the dose of corticosteroids if you feel well.
- C. Decrease fluid intake to prevent hypertension.
- D. Avoid physical activity during stressful times.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with Addison's disease should be educated to double their corticosteroid dosage during periods of stress. This is crucial to prevent adrenal crisis, as stress can increase the body's demand for cortisol. Skipping doses when feeling well can lead to an adrenal crisis if stress occurs suddenly. Decreasing fluid intake can exacerbate dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are already concerns in Addison's disease. Avoiding physical activity during stressful times is not the most appropriate advice; moderate physical activity can be beneficial, as long as the client is adequately managing their corticosteroid regimen.
3. When implementing a new policy on the unit, what process should a nurse manager follow?
- A. The nurse manager should involve staff members in the decision-making process, gather input, and communicate the reasons for the policy change to ensure buy-in from the team.
- B. The nurse manager should implement the policy change immediately and monitor staff compliance to ensure that the new policy is being followed.
- C. The nurse manager should delegate the implementation of the policy change to a staff member and provide support as needed to ensure that the change is successful.
- D. The nurse manager should communicate the policy change to staff members, provide training as needed, and monitor the implementation process to ensure that the change is effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When introducing a new policy on the unit, it is essential for the nurse manager to involve staff members in the decision-making process. This approach helps in gathering input and insights from the team, fostering a sense of ownership and commitment. By communicating the reasons behind the policy change, the nurse manager ensures transparency and promotes understanding among the staff, leading to buy-in and acceptance of the new policy. Choice B is incorrect because implementing a policy change without involving staff and explaining the rationale may lead to resistance or lack of understanding. Choice C is not ideal as delegation without active involvement and communication with the team may result in misunderstandings or incomplete implementation. Choice D lacks the crucial step of involving staff in the decision-making process, which is important for successful policy implementation and team engagement.
4. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?
- A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
- B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
- C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
- D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.
5. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Serum sodium level
- C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- D. Serum osmolarity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.
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