Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks.
• B. Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or privileges for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.

2. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?

• A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
• B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
• C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
• D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.

3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
• D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?

• A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.
• C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.

5. A client in heart failure (HF) presents with weakness and poor urine output. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Heart rate of 122 bpm and respiratory rate of 28.
• B. Yellow sputum expectorated.
• C. Temperature of 100.5°F (38.1°C).
• D. Shortness of breath on exertion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated temperature may indicate infection and should be treated immediately in a client with heart failure.

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