Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

2. A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?

• A. Instruct the client to use guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing
• B. Provide at least 20 minutes of back massage and gentle effleurage
• C. Encourage the client to watch TV
• D. Place a hot water circulation device, such as an Aqua K pad, to the operative site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.

3. The healthcare provider receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
• B. Review the intake and output record
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first intervention should be to check the drainage tubing for a kink. This step is crucial as any kinks in the tubing could obstruct urine flow, leading to a decreased output. By ensuring the tubing is free from any obstructions, the healthcare provider can address a potential mechanical issue causing the low output before considering other interventions. Reviewing the intake and output record may provide valuable information but should come after ensuring the tubing is clear. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done later if needed, but the immediate concern is to check for any obstructions. Giving the client water to drink may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence.

4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What instruction should the nurse provide to prepare the client for the procedure?

• A. Drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure
• B. Take a laxative the morning of the procedure
• C. Eat a light meal before the procedure
• D. Avoid drinking fluids for 4 hours before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for preparing a client for a colonoscopy is to drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure. This step helps to ensure the bowel is adequately cleared for the colonoscopy, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon.

5. The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, 'My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. She is almost sure to be less able to adapt than before.
• B. It's highly likely that she will recover and return to her pre-illness state.
• C. If you can interest her in something besides religion, it will help her stay well.
• D. Cultural strains contribute to each woman's tendencies for recurrences of depression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years involves acceptance and adaptation, and the daughter should be reassured that recovery is likely.

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