Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the client’s glycemic control?

• A. Monitor fasting blood glucose levels
• B. Check urine for ketones
• C. Evaluate hemoglobin A1c levels
• D. Assess the client’s dietary intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating hemoglobin A1c levels is the most appropriate intervention to assess glycemic control in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Hemoglobin A1c levels reflect the average blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information for monitoring and managing diabetes. Monitoring fasting blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important for daily management but does not provide a long-term view like hemoglobin A1c. Checking urine for ketones (Choice B) is more relevant for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis. Assessing dietary intake (Choice D) is crucial for overall diabetes management but does not directly assess glycemic control.

3. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

• A. Scattered macules on the face
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Smooth nail texture
• D. Presence of skin tenting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

4. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
• B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.
• D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small-bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes. The nurse should assess tube placement in this way before taking any other action to ensure the tube is still in the correct position and prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because further assessment is needed due to the risk of tube displacement. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the feeding and involving the family is premature without confirming tube placement. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air and auscultating for gurgling is not the recommended method to confirm tube placement.

5. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 75 ml/hr
• B. 150 ml/hr
• C. 225 ml/hr
• D. 300 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.

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