HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. When assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia to get into a wheelchair, how should the nurse position the wheelchair?
- A. On the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed.
- B. On the right side of the bed facing the head of the bed.
- C. Perpendicular to the bed on the right side.
- D. Facing the bed on the left side of the bed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Positioning the wheelchair on the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed is the correct approach when assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia. Placing the wheelchair on the left side allows the client to stand on their unaffected foot and pivot to sit down safely. This positioning facilitates a smoother transfer and helps maintain the client's stability during the process. Choice B is incorrect because positioning the wheelchair on the right side facing the head of the bed would make it challenging for the client to transfer due to their right-sided hemiplegia. Choice C is incorrect as placing the wheelchair perpendicular to the bed on the right side may not provide the necessary space and angle for a safe transfer. Choice D is incorrect as facing the bed on the left side of the bed does not provide the optimal position for the client to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair effectively.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.
3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
4. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?
- A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
- B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
- C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
- D. Expressed feelings of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.
5. When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the child to clean his genital area.
- B. Defer perineal care due to the child's age.
- C. Retract the foreskin gently to cleanse the penis.
- D. Inquire about the reason for the child not being circumcised.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action when bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years is to gently retract the foreskin to cleanse the penis. This is important to ensure proper hygiene and prevent the accumulation of bacteria that can lead to infections. It is not advisable to defer perineal care because of the child's age, as hygiene is crucial at any age. Asking the parents about the circumcision status may not be relevant during routine perineal care. Reminding the child to clean his genital area is not as effective as directly cleaning the area during bathing.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access