Nursing Elites

1. When assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia to get into a wheelchair, how should the nurse position the wheelchair?

• A. On the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed.
• B. On the right side of the bed facing the head of the bed.
• C. Perpendicular to the bed on the right side.
• D. Facing the bed on the left side of the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positioning the wheelchair on the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed is the correct approach when assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia. Placing the wheelchair on the left side allows the client to stand on their unaffected foot and pivot to sit down safely. This positioning facilitates a smoother transfer and helps maintain the client's stability during the process. Choice B is incorrect because positioning the wheelchair on the right side facing the head of the bed would make it challenging for the client to transfer due to their right-sided hemiplegia. Choice C is incorrect as placing the wheelchair perpendicular to the bed on the right side may not provide the necessary space and angle for a safe transfer. Choice D is incorrect as facing the bed on the left side of the bed does not provide the optimal position for the client to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair effectively.

2. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

• A. Continue gabapentin.
• B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
• C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
• D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

3. After informing an older client that an IV line needs to be inserted, the client becomes very apprehensive, loudly expressing a dislike for all healthcare providers and nurses. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask the client to remain quiet so the procedure can be performed safely.
• B. Concentrate on completing the insertion as efficiently as possible.
• C. Calmly reassure the client that the discomfort will be temporary.
• D. Tell the client a joke as a means of distraction from the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should respond by calmly reassuring the client that the discomfort from the IV insertion will be temporary. By providing reassurance and addressing the client's concerns, the nurse can help reduce the client's apprehension and create a more supportive environment for the procedure.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching a new colleague about the correct administration of subcutaneous (subQ) injections. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle for subQ injections
• B. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
• C. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle
• D. Massage the site after administering the injection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pinching the skin before inserting the needle is essential in elevating the subcutaneous tissue away from the muscle. This technique ensures that the medication is administered into the correct tissue layer, promoting proper absorption and decreasing the risk of injecting into muscle tissue.

5. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

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