HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Hematocrit of 32%
- B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.
2. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Potassium chloride
- C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
- D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.
3. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:
- A. Treat thyroid storm.
- B. Prevent cardiac irritability.
- C. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
- D. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.
4. A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will:
- A. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day.
- B. Take the daily dose at bedtime.
- C. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval.
- D. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking theophylline at bedtime is inappropriate because it can cause insomnia. The medication should be taken early in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep patterns. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of the medication to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.
5. When monitoring a client for acute toxicity associated with bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), what sign should the nurse check for to indicate toxicity?
- A. Dry skin
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Signs of dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Toxicity from bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can lead to excessive muscarinic stimulation, resulting in manifestations like salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. When facing toxicity, treatment involves supportive measures and administering atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.
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