Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

3. When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which action should the nurse take first when performing tracheostomy care?

• A. Remove the inner cannula.
• B. Clean the stoma with normal saline.
• C. Change the tracheostomy ties.
• D. Suction the tracheostomy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority action because it ensures a patent airway before proceeding with any other tracheostomy care interventions. This step helps clear secretions and maintain airway patency, which is crucial for the client's respiratory status. Removing the inner cannula, cleaning the stoma, or changing the tracheostomy ties can follow once the airway is clear. Therefore, options A, B, and C are secondary actions compared to suctioning the tracheostomy.

4. A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cancer awareness. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free cancer screenings
• B. lectures on cancer prevention
• C. distribution of educational materials
• D. testimonials from cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings should be included in the community health fair to best engage participants. This activity provides immediate, valuable information about participants' cancer risk, making it highly engaging and actionable. While lectures on cancer prevention and distribution of educational materials are informative, they may not offer the same level of immediate engagement and impact as free screenings. Testimonials from cancer survivors, although inspiring, do not provide participants with direct information about their own cancer risk, making them less effective in engaging participants actively.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Amylase of 120 U/L.
• B. Lipase of 150 U/L.
• C. Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL.
• D. Temperature of 101°F (38.3°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcohol abuse, a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Elevated amylase and lipase levels are common in acute pancreatitis but do not directly indicate the need for urgent intervention. A calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate action in this context.

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