Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
• C. Inability to move the eyes.
• D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

3. The nurse is teaching a group of high school adolescents about safety associated with traumatic injuries. Which factor causing spinal cord injuries should the nurse discuss with the adolescents?

• A. motor vehicle accidents
• B. violent assault
• C. sports injuries
• D. falls

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: motor vehicle accidents. Motor vehicle accidents are a significant cause of spinal cord injuries among adolescents due to the high impact forces involved. While violent assault, sports injuries, and falls can also lead to spinal cord injuries, statistics show that motor vehicle accidents are a leading cause in this age group. Educating adolescents about the risks and preventive measures related to motor vehicle accidents is crucial in promoting their safety and well-being.

4. A school nurse is developing a program to address bullying among students. Which component is most important to include?

• A. education on the effects of bullying
• B. training for teachers on how to handle bullying incidents
• C. a peer mentoring program
• D. a zero-tolerance policy for bullying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Training for teachers is the most important component to include in addressing bullying among students. Teachers play a crucial role in identifying, intervening, and preventing bullying incidents. By providing teachers with training on how to handle bullying, they can effectively address such situations, support victims, and educate students on appropriate behavior. While education on the effects of bullying (Choice A) is important, teachers need practical skills to intervene. Peer mentoring programs (Choice C) and zero-tolerance policies (Choice D) are valuable but may not be as effective without teachers being equipped to address bullying incidents directly.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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