Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing a presentation on the impact of substance abuse on families. Which approach is most effective for engaging the audience?

• A. showing statistical data on substance abuse rates
• B. sharing personal stories from individuals affected by substance abuse
• C. distributing informational brochures on substance abuse
• D. providing a list of local substance abuse treatment centers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing personal stories from individuals affected by substance abuse is the most effective approach for engaging the audience. Personal stories evoke emotions, create empathy, and make the impact of substance abuse more relatable and tangible for the audience. This approach helps in fostering a deeper understanding of the real-life consequences of substance abuse on families. The other options, such as showing statistical data (choice A), distributing informational brochures (choice C), and providing a list of treatment centers (choice D), may be informative but may not engage the audience on an emotional level as effectively as personal stories.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• B. I will report any signs of infection to my healthcare provider.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

4. During a community health fair, the nurse conducts a blood pressure screening for a 60-year-old woman who has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to monitor her blood pressure at home
• B. Refer the client to her healthcare provider for further evaluation
• C. Educate the client on lifestyle changes to reduce blood pressure
• D. Recheck the blood pressure in 15 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a high blood pressure reading at a community health fair, it is essential for the nurse to refer the client to her healthcare provider for further evaluation. This step ensures that the client receives a comprehensive assessment, diagnosis, and appropriate management plan. In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize professional evaluation over self-monitoring, lifestyle education, or immediate rechecking of the blood pressure. Referral to a healthcare provider allows for timely intervention and ongoing monitoring of the client's blood pressure to prevent potential complications.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
• B. The client's arm is warm and red.
• C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
• D. There is no bruit on auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

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