Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

2. A community health nurse is planning a program to reduce the incidence of heart disease in the community. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets
• B. Organizing free cholesterol screenings
• C. Holding workshops on stress management
• D. Partnering with local gyms to offer fitness classes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Organizing free cholesterol screenings. This intervention is crucial because it helps identify individuals at risk for heart disease by assessing their cholesterol levels. High cholesterol is a significant risk factor for heart disease, and identifying it early can lead to timely interventions and medical care. Choices A, C, and D, while beneficial for overall health, may not directly address the specific risk factor of high cholesterol associated with heart disease. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets (A) could be helpful in preventing heart disease, but identifying individuals already at risk is a more urgent need. Holding workshops on stress management (C) and partnering with local gyms for fitness classes (D) are important for overall health promotion but may not target the specific risk factor of high cholesterol as directly as organizing cholesterol screenings.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a program to educate parents on the importance of immunizations. Which topic should be prioritized?

• A. the benefits of immunizations
• B. the potential side effects of vaccines
• C. the immunization schedule
• D. ways to comfort children during vaccinations

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prioritizing the benefits of immunizations is crucial in helping parents comprehend the significance of vaccines in safeguarding their children against preventable diseases. Understanding the positive impact of immunizations can alleviate concerns and misconceptions that parents may have, ultimately encouraging them to make informed decisions regarding their children's health. Discussing potential side effects (choice B) is important but should come after highlighting the benefits to avoid instilling unnecessary fear. While the immunization schedule (choice C) is essential information, it may be overwhelming if presented as the initial focus. Comforting children during vaccinations (choice D) is valuable but secondary to ensuring parents understand the benefits of immunizations.

4. During a prenatal class for expectant mothers, what topic should be included to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby?

• A. importance of taking prenatal vitamins
• B. how to handle common discomforts of pregnancy
• C. preparing for labor and delivery
• D. breastfeeding techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the importance of taking prenatal vitamins. Prenatal vitamins are crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby as they provide essential nutrients required for fetal development. While handling common discomforts of pregnancy (choice B) is important for maternal well-being, it does not directly impact the health of the baby. Preparing for labor and delivery (choice C) focuses more on the delivery process rather than the overall health of the mother and baby during pregnancy. Breastfeeding techniques (choice D) are relevant postpartum, not during the prenatal period, and do not directly impact the health of the baby during pregnancy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spider angiomas are abnormal clusters of blood vessels near the skin surface and can be indicative of an underlying liver condition. In the context of liver cirrhosis, spider angiomas can suggest portal hypertension and liver dysfunction, which requires immediate intervention. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of liver cirrhosis but not typically an immediate intervention priority unless severe. Ascites (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are also common in liver cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless they are causing respiratory compromise or other urgent issues.

Similar Questions