HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
- C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer intravenous insulin and glucose first. This intervention helps drive potassium back into the cells, lowering serum levels effectively. Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize cardiac membranes in severe hyperkalemia but does not address the underlying cause. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is used in metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Administering a loop diuretic (choice D) can help eliminate potassium but is not the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia in CKD.
2. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's instructions?
- A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
- B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
- C. Take acetaminophen for fever of 101°F.
- D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial following a TURP procedure as it may indicate a complication such as bleeding or clot formation. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of post-TURP care, but identifying and reporting fresh blood in the urine take precedence due to its association with potential serious complications.
3. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Perform an otoscopic examination
- B. Measure the child's abdominal girth
- C. Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for serum electrolytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis is the next appropriate intervention. The symptoms described, including facial edema and tea-colored urine, are indicative of glomerulonephritis, a condition affecting the kidneys. A urine specimen can help assess renal function and the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which are common in glomerulonephritis. Performing an otoscopic examination (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Measuring the child's abdominal girth (Choice B) is not necessary at this point as it does not directly address the urinary symptoms. Obtaining a blood specimen for serum electrolytes (Choice D) may provide information about electrolyte imbalances but is not the most appropriate initial step in this case.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum sodium
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Elevated blood glucose level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are most concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of hepatotoxicity or liver damage, which could be a result of furosemide (Lasix) use. Monitoring liver function is crucial in patients taking furosemide due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg are within normal ranges for a client with chronic heart failure. An elevated blood glucose level may be expected due to the effects of furosemide but is not as immediately concerning as elevated liver enzymes.
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