HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?
- A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
- B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
- C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
- D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.
2. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.
3. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
- D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.
4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
- C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.
5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
- B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
- C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
- D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
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