HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?
- A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
- B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
- C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
- D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.
2. The charge nurse is planning assignments on a medical unit. Which client should be assigned to the PN?
- A. Test a stool specimen for occult blood
- B. Assist with the ambulation of a client with a chest tube
- C. Irrigate and redress a leg wound
- D. Admit a client from the emergency room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Irrigating and redressing a leg wound is a common task within the PN's scope of practice, making this assignment appropriate. Tasks like testing stool specimens for occult blood and assisting with ambulation of a client with a chest tube may require a higher level of training and assessment, typically performed by RNs. Admitting a client from the emergency room involves a comprehensive assessment and decision-making process, which is usually within the RN's responsibility.
3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to prevent aspiration during meals?
- A. Encourage the client to take large bites of food
- B. Advise the client to eat quickly to prevent fatigue
- C. Offer the client thin liquids with meals
- D. Instruct the client to sit upright while eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit upright while eating is crucial to prevent aspiration in stroke clients. This position helps in safe swallowing and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the airway. Encouraging the client to take large bites of food (Choice A) can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Advising the client to eat quickly (Choice B) may lead to fatigue and compromise safe swallowing. Offering thin liquids (Choice C) can also increase the risk of aspiration in stroke clients, as thicker liquids are usually recommended to prevent aspiration.
4. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
- A. Exercise doing weight-bearing activities
- B. Exercise to reduce weight
- C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
- D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.
5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
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