a client with acute kidney injury aki is experiencing hyperkalemia what intervention should the nurse prioritize
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and reports nausea. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client on digoxin reports nausea, it can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's digoxin level immediately. This assessment will help determine if the nausea is related to digoxin toxicity, requiring a dosage adjustment. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Assessing the client's apical pulse (Choice C) is important in general digoxin monitoring but not the first action when nausea is reported. Instructing the client to reduce fluid intake (Choice D) is not the initial response to nausea in a client taking digoxin.

4. A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.

5. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.

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