Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
• C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
• D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.

2. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a swishing sound. How should this sound be documented?

• A. Heart murmur.
• B. Murmur.
• C. S3 sound.
• D. S4 sound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Murmur.' A murmur is a swishing sound heard during auscultation, typically caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart or valves. Choices C and D, 'S3 sound' and 'S4 sound,' refer to specific heart sounds associated with different cardiac conditions, not the general description of a swishing sound. Choice A, 'Heart murmur,' is redundant as 'murmur' alone is sufficient to describe the swishing sound heard.

3. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure presents with shortness of breath and pink frothy sputum. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally.
• B. Heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm.
• C. Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
• D. Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate. Pink frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Increased respiratory rate is also concerning as it indicates the body's effort to compensate for the decreased oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not the most critical findings in this situation. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally may indicate a pneumothorax or atelectasis, heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm can be managed with medications and further assessment, and elevated blood pressure with shortness of breath is not as urgent as pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.

4. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?

• A. Breath sounds are audible bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88
• D. Client is unable to verbalize

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.

5. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

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