Nursing Elites

1. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Fever.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.

2. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
• B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
• C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
• D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

3. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

4. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.

• A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
• B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
• C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
• D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.

5. A patient is being treated for shock after a motor vehicle accident. The provider orders 6% dextran 75 to be given intravenously. The nurse should expect which outcome as the result of this infusion?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Improved blood oxygenation
• C. Increased interstitial fluid
• D. Stabilization of heart rate and blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 6% Dextran 75 is a high molecular-weight colloidal solution used to treat shock from burns or trauma. Colloids like 6% dextran 75 are plasma expanders that help increase blood volume, leading to improved heart rate and blood pressure stabilization. The infusion of plasma expanders does not typically decrease urine output. It primarily aims to stabilize circulation rather than affect blood oxygenation or increase interstitial fluid levels.

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