Nursing Elites

1. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
• C. Inability to move the eyes.
• D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Urine output is decreased.
• B. Thirst is decreased.
• C. Weight loss is observed.
• D. Urine specific gravity is within the normal range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the body loses excessive amounts of water, leading to diluted urine with low specific gravity. Therefore, when the urine specific gravity is within the normal range, it indicates that the kidneys are properly concentrating urine, which is a sign of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, there is polyuria (excessive urination), persistent thirst due to fluid loss, and potential weight loss due to fluid imbalance, so these findings would not indicate effective treatment.

3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

4. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

5. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer smoking history ask for assistance with smoking cessation. A nurse develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of over-the-counter nicotine substitute products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. survey employees to determine how many are smoking 2 months after the end of the program
• B. test the employees' knowledge of OTC nicotine substitute products at the end of the program
• C. ask employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start smoking again
• D. design a questionnaire that identifies lifestyle changes contributing to smoking cessation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Surveying employees to determine how many are smoking 2 months after the end of the program provides a direct assessment of the program's effectiveness. This measurement evaluates the actual behavior change related to smoking cessation. Choice B, testing knowledge of OTC nicotine substitute products, does not directly measure smoking cessation outcomes. Choice C relies on self-reporting, which may not be accurate or reliable. Choice D focuses on identifying lifestyle changes but does not directly assess the program's impact on smoking cessation.

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