Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

2. A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cardiovascular health. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free blood pressure screenings
• B. lectures on heart-healthy diets
• C. distribution of pamphlets on heart disease
• D. cooking demonstrations of healthy recipes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free blood pressure screenings should be included in the community health fair to best engage participants. This activity provides immediate, valuable information about participants' cardiovascular health. Blood pressure screenings are interactive, engaging, and offer personalized insights that can motivate individuals to take action towards improving their heart health. Lectures on heart-healthy diets, distribution of pamphlets, and cooking demonstrations, although beneficial, may not have the same level of immediate impact and engagement as the hands-on experience of getting one's blood pressure checked.

3. A community health nurse is developing a program to reduce the incidence of teen pregnancy. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Distribute free condoms at local high schools
• B. Offer comprehensive sex education classes
• C. Promote abstinence-only education
• D. Provide access to reproductive health services

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education has been shown to be more effective in reducing teen pregnancy rates compared to abstinence-only education. Providing comprehensive sex education equips teens with knowledge about safe sex practices, contraception methods, and healthy relationships, which empowers them to make informed decisions. Distributing free condoms and providing access to reproductive health services are important components, but without proper education, teens may not understand how to use these resources effectively. Promoting abstinence-only education limits information and may not address the reality of teen sexual behavior, potentially leading to higher pregnancy rates.

4. The healthcare professional is planning a health education workshop for a group of adolescents on the dangers of substance abuse. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. showing videos of the effects of substance abuse
• B. inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories
• C. providing statistical data on substance abuse
• D. distributing brochures on substance abuse prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories is the most effective strategy for educating adolescents about the dangers of substance abuse. Personal stories have a significant impact as they provide real-life examples of the consequences of substance abuse, making the information more relatable and emotionally engaging. This approach can evoke empathy, create a deeper understanding of the risks involved, and potentially deter adolescents from experimenting with substances. Showing videos of the effects of substance abuse (choice A) may be impactful, but personal narratives often have a stronger emotional connection. Providing statistical data (choice C) may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing brochures (choice D) is informative but may not have the same emotional impact and engagement as hearing firsthand experiences.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

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