Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• B. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl
• D. Platelet count of 90,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm3 is low and concerning for a client scheduled for a renal biopsy, as it increases the risk of bleeding. Thrombocytopenia, indicated by a low platelet count, can lead to impaired blood clotting, posing a significant risk of bleeding during or after the biopsy procedure. Elevated serum creatinine levels may be expected in chronic kidney disease but are not directly related to bleeding risk during a renal biopsy. Prothrombin time and hemoglobin levels are not as directly relevant to the bleeding risk associated with a renal biopsy as platelet count.

2. While auscultating a client's heart sounds, which description should the nurse use to document a swishing sound related to blood turbulence or valvular defect?

• A. S1 S2
• B. S1 S2 S3
• C. Murmur
• D. Pericardial friction rub

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Murmur.' A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound associated with blood turbulence caused by the heart or a valvular defect. Choices 'A: S1 S2' and 'B: S1 S2 S3' refer to normal heart sounds, specifically the closure of heart valves. 'D: Pericardial friction rub' is a dry, rubbing or grating sound caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac and is not associated with blood flow or valvular issues.

3. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.

4. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered an hour ago?

• A. Maintain cold packs to the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infant.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the immediate postpartum period to detect postpartum hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication. Monitoring these parameters allows for early identification of excessive bleeding, enabling prompt intervention. While maintaining cold packs to the perineum, assessing pain levels, and observing for appropriate interaction with the infant are important aspects of postpartum care, assessing fundal tone and lochia flow takes precedence due to its direct relevance to identifying and managing a potential emergency situation.

5. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
• B. Have the client sign the consent form.
• C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
• D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.

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