HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.
2. During the infusion of a second unit of packed red blood cells, the client's temperature increases from 99 to 101.6 F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Stop the transfusion and start a saline infusion.
- B. Administer antipyretics and continue the transfusion.
- C. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider and continue the transfusion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in temperature during a transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious. Stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion is the priority action to prevent further complications and address the potential adverse reaction. Administering antipyretics (choice B) may mask the symptoms of a transfusion reaction, delaying appropriate treatment. While monitoring vital signs (choice C) is important, stopping the transfusion takes precedence to prevent harm. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is essential but should not delay the immediate intervention of stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion.
3. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
- A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
- B. Report increased bruising or bleeding
- C. Stop medication if a cough develops
- D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Instructing the client to report any signs of increased bruising or bleeding is crucial for monitoring and managing this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - Increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects of enalapril. C - Developing a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it does not warrant stopping the medication unless advised by a healthcare provider. D - Limiting intake of leafy green vegetables is not necessary with enalapril unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider for individual reasons.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 40 mg/dl
- C. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the healthcare provider before the procedure to prevent any potential serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the context of preparing for a hemodialysis session. Serum potassium levels above 6.0 mEq/L require immediate attention to ensure patient safety.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing shortness of breath and has a prescription for oxygen therapy. What is the maximum amount of oxygen the nurse should administer without a healthcare provider's order?
- A. 2 liters per minute
- B. 4 liters per minute
- C. 6 liters per minute
- D. 8 liters per minute
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 4 liters per minute. Without a healthcare provider's order, the nurse should administer a maximum of 4 liters per minute of oxygen to prevent carbon dioxide retention in COPD clients. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity and worsen the client's condition. Choices A, C, and D exceed the safe limit for oxygen administration without a healthcare provider's order.
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