Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
• B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
• C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
• D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.

2. While taking vital signs, a critically ill male client grabs the nurse's hand and asks the nurse not to leave. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Pull up a chair and sit beside the client's bed.
• B. Reassure the client that you will return shortly.
• C. Ask another nurse to stay with the client.
• D. Continue taking vital signs and then leave the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to pull up a chair and sit beside the client's bed. By doing so, the nurse can provide emotional support and comfort to the critically ill patient who is feeling vulnerable. Sitting with the client also shows empathy and a willingness to listen to the client's needs. Reassuring the client that the nurse will return shortly (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for emotional support. Asking another nurse to stay with the client (Choice C) may not establish the same level of connection and comfort as sitting with the client personally. Continuing to take vital signs and then leaving the room (Choice D) disregards the client's emotional needs in that moment.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

5. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
• B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
• C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
• D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.

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