Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing chronic pain in both hands and wrists. Which information about the client is most important for the nurse to obtain when planning care?

• A. Amount of support provided by family members
• B. Measurement of pain using a scale of 0 to 10
• C. The ability to perform ADLs
• D. Nonverbal behaviors exhibited when pain occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) is crucial in planning care for someone with chronic pain. Understanding the client's functional status helps the nurse tailor interventions to promote independence and enhance quality of life. It provides valuable insight into the impact of pain on daily activities and guides the development of a comprehensive care plan to address the client's specific needs. While family support, pain measurement, and nonverbal behaviors are important aspects to consider in caring for a client with chronic pain, the ability to perform ADLs directly reflects the client's independence and quality of life, making it the most crucial information to obtain.

3. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

4. A healthcare professional is working in an occupational health clinic when an employee walks in and states that he was struck by lightning while working in a truck. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the healthcare professional perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a person is struck by lightning, it can cause an electrical shock that may affect the heart rhythm. Therefore, assessing pulse characteristics is crucial as lightning can act as a natural defibrillator. Monitoring the pulse rate and regularity will help determine if there are any cardiac abnormalities that need immediate attention. Open airway, entrance and exit wounds, and cervical spine injury assessments are also important but assessing pulse characteristics takes precedence in this situation to address potential cardiac issues.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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