Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

2. During evacuation of a group of clients from a medical unit because of a fire, the nurse observes an ambulatory client walking alone toward the stairway at the end of the hall. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair.
• B. Remind the client to walk carefully down the stairs until reaching a lower floor.
• C. Ask the client to help by assisting a wheelchair-bound client to a nearby elevator.
• D. Open the closest fire doors to facilitate the evacuation of ambulatory clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a fire evacuation, it is crucial for ambulatory clients to be reminded to walk carefully down the stairs. This helps ensure the safety of the client by preventing falls or injuries during the evacuation process. Directing the client to proceed cautiously down the stairs until reaching a lower floor provides necessary guidance to promote a safe evacuation process. Choice A is incorrect because assigning unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair may delay the evacuation process and increase the risk of injury. Choice C is incorrect as it distracts the ambulatory client from evacuating safely by involving them in assisting another client. Choice D is incorrect as opening fire doors may not be the most appropriate action at that moment; prioritizing safe evacuation procedures for ambulatory clients is essential.

3. When a health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?

• A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation because the older adult is in a condition to make such decisions.
• B. Because the client is mentally incompetent, the son does not have the right to waive informed consent for her.
• C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
• D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, it is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from the client before proceeding with any medical intervention. If informed consent is withheld and the treatment is carried out without the client's agreement, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery. This legal principle emphasizes the importance of respecting a client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Despite the son's wishes to withhold information from his mother, the client must be informed of the proposed treatment and given the opportunity to consent or refuse based on complete information provided by the healthcare team.

4. A client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse about drinking juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Orange juice has vitamin C, which deters bacterial growth.
• B. Apple juice is the most useful in acidifying the urine.
• C. Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.
• D. Grapefruit juice increases the absorption of most antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to the cells within the bladder. This property helps in maintaining urinary tract health and preventing recurrent UTIs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while vitamin C in orange juice may have some benefits, it is not specifically known for deterring bacterial growth in the urinary tract. Apple juice does not significantly impact urine acidity, and grapefruit juice does not enhance antibiotic absorption, making them less effective choices for preventing UTIs compared to cranberry juice.

5. When discussing dietary preferences with a client adhering to a vegan diet, which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include in the dietary plan?

• A. Fiber
• B. Folate
• C. Ascorbic acid
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient predominantly found in animal products. Individuals following a vegan diet, which excludes animal products, are at a higher risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. Encouraging the client to include a vitamin B12 supplement in their dietary plan is crucial to prevent deficiency-related health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not specific to addressing the deficiency that vegan diets may cause. Fiber, folate, and ascorbic acid are important but do not directly address the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency in vegan diets.

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