Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client's vital signs
• B. Irrigate the catheter with 30 ml of sterile normal saline
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Replace the catheter with a larger size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which outcome is the priority for this child?

• A. Activity tolerance as evidenced by appropriate age-level activities being performed
• B. Absence of skin breakdown as evidenced by intact skin and absence of redness
• C. Maintaining adequate nutritional status as evidenced by stable weight without gain or loss
• D. Maintaining fluid balance as evidenced by a urine output of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, maintaining fluid balance is the priority to prevent complications like fluid overload or dehydration. Monitoring urine output within the range of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr is crucial in assessing renal function. While activity tolerance, skin integrity, and nutritional status are important aspects of care, fluid balance takes precedence due to its direct impact on the renal condition and overall health outcome for the child.

4. A nurse is assessing the learning needs of a client who is diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I should take my medications daily to replace necessary hormones
• B. I need to eat a diet high in protein and carbohydrates
• C. I should avoid drinking fluids with caffeine
• D. I should notify my healthcare provider if I start feeling dizzy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A diet high in protein and carbohydrates is not specifically required for Addison's disease. The focus should be on maintaining a balanced diet that is rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and adequate protein sources. Choice A is correct as adherence to medication therapy is crucial in managing Addison's disease. Choice C is correct as caffeine can exacerbate symptoms of Addison's disease. Choice D is correct as dizziness can be a sign of adrenal crisis in Addison's disease, and prompt notification of healthcare providers is essential.

5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

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