HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client's vital signs
- B. Irrigate the catheter with 30 ml of sterile normal saline
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Replace the catheter with a larger size
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.
2. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
- B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
- C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
- D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.
3. Nurses working in labor and delivery are demanding a change in policy because they believe they are required to float more often than nurses on other units. However, floating to labor and delivery is not reciprocated because other nurses are not competent to provide highly specialized obstetrical skills. What action is best for the nurse-manager to implement?
- A. Require cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses
- B. Propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery
- C. Remind nurses that floating is an administrative policy
- D. Encourage nurses to share their feelings with administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse-manager to implement is to propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery. This approach allows nurses to manage their schedules, ensuring a fair balance of workloads. Requiring cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses (Choice A) may not be feasible or necessary for all units. Reminding nurses that floating is an administrative policy (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of workload balance. Encouraging nurses to share their feelings with administration (Choice D) may not lead to a concrete solution for the unequal floating concerns.
4. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
- C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
- D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
- B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
- C. Evaluate the client's pain level
- D. Assess the client's pain level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, the most critical action for the nurse to implement is to monitor the client's respiratory status. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status allows for early detection of any signs of respiratory compromise. Teaching the client how to use the PCA pump, evaluating pain level, and assessing pain level are important aspects of care but ensuring the client's safety by monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid administration.
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