Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client's vital signs
• B. Irrigate the catheter with 30 ml of sterile normal saline
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Replace the catheter with a larger size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.

2. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assess the need for continued restraint
• B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
• C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
• C. Check the client's blood pressure
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?

• A. Heart rate of 50 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 50 beats per minute is a concerning finding that should be reported before administering metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate, so a heart rate of 50 bpm indicates potential bradycardia, which is a contraindication for administering this medication. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate concerns related to metoprolol administration.

5. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

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