HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?
- A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
- B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
- C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
- D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.
2. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
- B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
- C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
- D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.
3. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Take the medication with meals
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- C. Limit sodium intake
- D. Take the medication at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
- C. Check the client's blood pressure
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Verify the client's blood type
- B. Ensure the PRBCs are warm
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Obtain the client's consent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type is crucial before administering PRBCs to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's blood type is essential in blood transfusions. Ensuring the PRBCs are warm is not a priority as the temperature should be within a specific range regardless of the client's preference. Checking the client's vital signs is important but not as crucial as verifying the blood type before a blood transfusion. Obtaining the client's consent is important for any procedure but does not directly impact the safety and success of administering PRBCs.
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