Nursing Elites

1. During a home visit, the nurse observes an elderly client with disabilities slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. provide the client with 4 ounces of orange juice
• B. call 911 to summon emergency assistance
• C. check the client for lacerations or fractures
• D. assess the client's blood sugar level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first after an elderly client with disabilities slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess the extent of injuries and provide appropriate medical attention promptly. Option A, providing orange juice, is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential injuries. While calling 911 (Option B) may be necessary, assessing for immediate injuries takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood sugar level (Option D) is not the immediate priority after a fall unless there is a specific indication or suspicion of hypoglycemia.

2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
• C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
• D. Mild jaundice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.

3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to it. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse has applied primary prevention in this situation. Primary prevention involves efforts to prevent the occurrence of domestic violence before it starts, even if the client does not admit to the abuse. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to reduce the harm caused by violence that is already occurring. Tertiary prevention involves actions taken to rehabilitate and support individuals who have experienced domestic violence. Health promotion encompasses a broader approach aimed at improving overall health and well-being, which may include education on domestic violence prevention but is not specific to this scenario.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions